4. Which of the following statements accurately describes a difference between the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the GDP Deflator?
(A) The CPI measures the prices of all goods produced domestically, while the GDP deflator measures only consumer goods.
(B) The CPI includes the prices of imported consumer goods, whereas the GDP deflator includes only goods produced within the country.
(C) The GDP deflator allows the basket of goods to change every month, while the CPI never changes its basket over time.
(D) The CPI always underestimates inflation, while the GDP deflator always overestimates it.

5. When the consumption of a good creates a positive externality, such as a neighbor investing in beautiful landscaping or a citizen getting a flu vaccination, which of the following describes the relationship between the free-market outcome and social efficiency? (A) The marginal private value of the good exceeds the marginal social value. (B) The private market underproduces the good relative to the socially optimal quantity. (C) The market price is artificially higher than the socially efficient price. (D) The marginal social cost of the good exceeds the marginal private cost.

6. After many terrible first dates arranged through a dating website, you decide to ask your good friends to help you find a companion. To motivate them, you promise your friends a $200 cash reward for every person they introduce to you, regardless of the outcome. Consequently, your friends start setting you up with random strangers just to collect the money. By offering this incentive, you have created a(n) _______. (A) principal-agent problem (B) adverse selection (C) screening failure (D) moral hazard

7. A local transit authority notices that when they raise bus ticket prices by 10%, their total revenue from ticket sales decreases. What does this outcome indicate about the price elasticity of demand for bus rides in this city? (A) Demand is elastic, meaning the percentage change in quantity demanded is larger than the percentage change in price. (B) Demand is unit elastic, meaning the percentage change in quantity demanded exactly equals the percentage change in price. (C) Demand is inelastic, meaning the percentage change in quantity demanded is smaller than the percentage change in price. (D) Demand is perfectly inelastic, meaning consumers will buy the same amount regardless of price.

8. According to the diminishing marginal utility, as an individual consumes more units of a single good within a specific time period, what happens to their utility? (A) Total utility decreases with every additional unit consumed. (B) Marginal utility increases at an increasing rate. (C) Total utility remains constant while marginal utility falls to zero. (D) Marginal utility decreases with each additional unit consumed, even if total utility is still rising.

9. Assume a commercial bank receives a new cash deposit of $10,000. If the central bank's required reserve ratio is 10%, and the bank lends out all of its excess reserves, what is the maximum amount of new money this single bank can create through this initial loan? (A) $1,000 (B) $9,000 (C) $10,000 (D) $90,000

10. When a government imposes a binding price floor on an otherwise competitive agricultural market, what is the most likely outcome? (A) Market efficiency increases because farmers receive a guaranteed higher price. (B) A shortage of the agricultural good develops because consumers want to buy more. (C) Total surplus is maximized, and deadweight loss is completely eliminated. (D) A surplus of the agricultural good develops, creating deadweight loss in the market.

11. In the loanable funds market, what is the expected outcome if the government switches from a budget surplus to a budget deficit? (A) The supply of loanable funds shifts left, raising the equilibrium interest rate. (B) The supply of loanable funds shifts right, lowering the equilibrium interest rate. (C) The demand for loanable funds shifts left, lowering the equilibrium interest rate. (D) The demand for loanable funds shifts right, lowering the equilibrium interest rate.

12. If the central bank wants to close a recessionary gap using expansionary monetary policy, what action should it take? (A) Buy government bonds to increase the money supply and lower interest rates. (B) Sell government bonds to decrease the money supply and raise interest rates. (C) Raise the discount rate to discourage commercial banks from lending. (D) Increase the required reserve ratio for all commercial banks.

13. Country A can produce either 10 computers or 20 shirts per day. Country B can produce either 5 computers or 15 shirts per day. Which of the following statements is true regarding comparative advantage? (A) Country A has a comparative advantage in shirts because it can produce more than Country B. (B) Country B has a comparative advantage in shirts because its opportunity cost of making a shirt is lower than Country A's. (C) Country A has a comparative advantage in both goods because it has higher overall productivity. (D) Country B has a comparative advantage in computers because it gives up fewer shirts to make one.

14. If a country experiences a significant depreciation of its domestic currency relative to foreign currencies, what is the most likely short-run impact on its balance of trade? (A)Imports will rise and exports will fall, creating a trade surplus. (B)Imports will fall and exports will rise, creating a trade deficit. (C)Net exports will decrease because domestic imports become cheaper for citizens. (D)Net exports will increase because domestic exports become cheaper for foreigners.

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