94年 - [非官方正解]94 國立中山大學_轉學生招生考試試題﹕普通生物(下)#128899

科目：研究所、轉學考(插大)-普通生物學 | 年份：94年 | 選擇題數：90 | 申論題數：1

試卷資訊

所屬科目：研究所、轉學考(插大)-普通生物學

選擇題 (90)

1. The main explanation for the lack of a continuing abiotic origin of life on Earth today is that (A) there are no molten surfaces on which weak solutions of organic molecules would polymerize. (B) all habitable places are already filled. (C) our oxidizing atmosphere is not conducive to the spontaneous formation of complex molecules. (D) there is not sufficient lightning to provide an energy source. (E) much less visible light is reaching Earth to serve as an energy source.

2. Which of the following represents a probable order in the biological history of Earth?
(A) an oxidizing atmosphere followed by a reducing atmosphere
(B) metabolism before mitosis
(C) animals before algae
(D) DNA genes before RNA genes
(E) eukaryotes before prokaryotes

3. The oxygen revolution changed Earth's environment dramatically. Which of the following adaptations took advantage of this change?
(A) the persistence of some animal groups in anaerobic habitats
(B) the evolution of chloroplasts when early protists engulfed photosynthetic cyanobacteria
(C) the evolution of photosynthetic pigments that protected early algae from the corrosive effects of oxygen
(D) the evolution of cellular respiration, which used oxygen to help harvest energy from fuel molecules
(E) the evolution of multicellular eukaryotic colonies from symbiotic communities of prokaryotes

4. Which of the following statements about the domains of prokaryotes is not true?
(A) The lipid composition of the plasma membrane found in archaea is different from that of bacteria.
(B) Both archaea and bacteria have cell walls, but the walls of archaea lack peptidoglycan.
(C) Archaea and bacteria probably diverged very early in evolutionary history.
(D) Bacteria include the cyanobacteria.
(E) Of the two groups, bacteria are more closely related to eukaryotes.

5. Which of the following groups is mismatched with its members?
(A) Proteobacteria-diverse gram-negative bacteria
(B)Gram-positive bacteria diverse pathogens whose endotoxins are components of their outer membrane
(C)Chlamydias intracellular parasites
(D)Cyanobacteria solitary and filamentous colonies exhibiting oxygenic photosynthesis
(E) Spirochetes helical heterotrophs

6. An example of bioremediation is
(A) the genetic engineering of bacteria to produce human proteins and useful chemical products.
(B) the introduction of parasitic bacteria to kill other bacteria.
(C) the use of prokaryotes to treat sewage or clean up oil spills.
(D) the use of antibiotics produced by cultured prokaryotes.
(E) all of the above.

7. Which of the following organisms are incorrectly paired with their description?
(A) diplomonads_protists lacking mitochondria
(B) rhizopods_naked and shelled amoebas
(C) forams_flagellated algae, free_living or symbiotic
(D) apicomplexans-parasites with complex life cycles
(E) actinopods-planktonic with slender, raylike axopodia

8. You find a colorful, weblike, amoeboid mass on a rotting log. After a dry period, you note stalked fruiting bodies growing up from this multinucleate mass. What is the probable identity of this organism?
(A) water mold
(B) plasmodial slime mold
(C) cellular slime mold
(D) foram
(E) euglenoid

9. Which of the following characteristics supports molecular evidence for combining the dinoflagellates, apicomplexans, and ciliates in the monophyletic clade Alveolata?
(A) All are pathogenic.
(B)Their flagella or cilia are organized with the 9 + 2 microtubular ultrastructure.
(C) All are found exclusively in freshwater or marine habitats.
(D) All possess mitochondria.
(E) The three groups have small membrane-bound alveoli under their cell surfaces.

10. Which of the following characteristics of plants is absent in their closest relatives, the charophycean algae?
(A) formation of a cell plate during cytokinesis
(B) chlorophyll &
(C) sexual reproduction
(D) alternation of multicellular generations
(E) cellulose in cell walls

11. Which of the following is not common to all phyla of vascular plants?
(A) dominance of the diploid generation
(B) alternation of generations
(C) the development of seeds
(D) the addition of lignin to cell walls
(E) xylem and phloem

12. A land plant that produces flagellated sperm and has a diploid-dominant generation is most likely a
(A) charophycean.
(B) fern.
(C) moss.
(D) liverwort.
(E) hornwort.

13. Where would you find a megasporangium in an angiosperm?
(A) within an ovule contained within an ovary of a flower
(B) producing a megaspore within the archegonium of the female gametophyte
(C) at the base of a sporophyll in an ovulate cone
(D) enclosed in the stigma of a flower
(E) packed into pollen sacs within the anthers found on a stamen

14. Gymnosperms and angiosperms have the following in common except
(A) ovules.
(B) seeds.
(C) vascular tissue.
(D) pollen.
(E) ovaries.

15. Which angiosperm cell is incorrectly paired with its chromosome count (n or 2n)?
(A) sperm-n
(B) egg cell-n
(C) zygote-2n
(D) megaspore-2n
(E) microspore-n

16. Which feature seen in chytrids supports the hypothesis that they represent the most primitive fungi?
(A) flagellated spores
(B) the absence of chitin within the cell wall
(C) formation of resistant zygosporangia
(D) coenocytic hyphae
(E) all representatives are parasitic

17. Which of the following cells or structures are associated with asexual reproduction in fungi?
(A) ascogonia
(B) zygosporangia
(C) basidiospores
(D) conidia
(E) ascospores

18. The adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of the mycelium is primarily related to
(A) the increased probability of contact between different mating types.
(B) the ability to form haustoria and parasitize other organisms.
(C) avoiding sexual reproduction until environmental change occurs.
(D) the potential to inhabit almost all terrestrial habitats.
(E) an extensive surface area well suited for absorptive nutrition.

19. The distinction between the parazoans and eumetazoans is based mainly on the absence versus the presence of
(A) mesoderm.
(B) a complete digestive tract.
(C) body cavities.
(D) a circulatory system.
(E) true tissues.

20. Which of the following was the least likely factor in the Cambrian explosion?
(A) the accumulation of diverse adaptations such as shells and different modes of locomotion
(B) the accumulation of sufficient atmospheric oxygen to support the more active metabolism of mobile animals
(C) the movement of animals onto land
(D) the evolution of fox genes that controlled development
(E) the emergence of predator-prey relationships between animals

21. Which of the following subdivisions of the animal kingdom encompasses all the others in the list?
(A) protostomes
(B) bilateria
(C) deuterostomes
(D) pseudocoelomates
(E) coelomates

22. Water movement through a sponge would follow what path?
(A) choanocyte→ mesohyl →spongocoel
(B) porocyte→ spongocoel→ osculum
(C) colloblast →coelom→ porocyte
(D) porocyte→choanocyte→mesohyl
(E) blastopore→gastrovascular cavity→protostome

23. Which of the following is not true of the chelicerates?
(A) They have antennae.
(B) Their anterior appendages are modified as pincers or fangs.
(C) The horseshoe crab is one surviving marine member.
(D) They include ticks, scorpions, and spiders.
(E) Their body is divided into a cephalothorax and an abdomen.

24. Which of the following characteristics is probably most responsible for the incredible diversification of insects on land?
(A) segmentation
(B) flight
(C) exoskeleton
(D) tracheal system
(E) metamorphosis

25. Some 530-million-year-old Chinese fossils resemble lancelets but have a more elaborate brain and a brain case (cranium). These fossils may represent
(A) an early vertebrate.
(B) a non-tetrapod gnathostome.
(C) a primitive bony fish.
(D) a "missing link" between the urochordates and cephalochordates.
(E) the first chordate.

26. If you were to observe a monkey in a zoo, which characteristic would indicate a New World origin for that monkey species?
(A) occasional bipedal walking
(B) eyes close together on the front of the skull
(C) distinct "seat pads"
(D) downward orientation of the nostrils
(E) use of the tail to hang from a tree limb

27. Unlike eutherian (placental) mammals, both monotremes and marsupials
(A) have some embryonic development outside the mother's uterus.
(B) are found in Australia and Africa.
(C) lay eggs.
(D) lack nipples.
(E) include only insectivores and herbivores.

28. Which of the following is not part of an older tree's bark?
(A) lenticels
(B) secondary xylem
(C) cork cambium
(D) secondary phloem
(E) cork

29. Which of the following cell types is least likely to have a secondary wall?
(A) tracheid
(B) sclerenchyma cell
(C) fiber cell
(D) sclereid
(E) parenchyma cell

30. Based on the hypothesis presented in Figures 21.20 and 35.36 in your textbook, predict the floral morphology of a mutant lacking activity of the B genes.
(A) sepal-carpel-carpel-sepal
(B) sepal-sepal-carpel-carpel
(C) petal-petal-petal-petal
(D) carpel-petal-petal-carpel
(E) carpel-carpel-carpel-carpel

31. Which of the following does not appear to involve active transport across membranes?
(A) the movement of sugar from mesophyll cells into sieve-tube members in corn
(B) the movement of mineral nutrients into cells of the root cortex
(C) K+ uptake by guard cells during stomatal opening
(D) the movement of mineral nutrients from the apoplast to the symplast
(E) the movement of sugar from one sieve-tube member to the next

32. Imagine cutting a live twig from a tree and examining the cut surface of the twig with a magnifying glass. You locate the vascular tissue and observe a growing droplet of fluid exuding from the cut surface. This fluid is probably
(A) cell sap from the broken vacuoles of cells.
(B) phloem sap.
(C) xylem sap.
(D) fluid of the transpiration stream.
(E) guttation fluid.

33. Stomata open when guard cells
(A) close aquaporins, preventing uptake of water.
(B) flop open because of a decrease in turgor pressure.
(C) accumulate water by active transport.
(D) sense an increase in CO2 in the air spaces of the leaf.
(E) become more turgid because of an influx of K+, followed by the osmotic entry of water.

34. Micronutrients are needed in very small amounts because
(A) most function as cofactors of enzymes.
(B) only the growing regions of the plants require them.
(C) most are supplied in large enough quantities in seeds.
(D) they play only a minor role in the health of the plant.
(E) most of them are mobile in the plant.
35. A mineral deficiency is likely to affect older leaves more than younger leaves if
(A) the mineral is very mobile within the plant.
(B) the mineral is required for chlorophyll synthesis.
(C) the mineral is a micronutrient.
(D) the older leaves are in direct sunlight.
(E) the deficiency persists for a long time.
36. The specific relationship between a legume and its symbiotic Rhizobium species probably depends on
(A) each Rhizobium species having a form of nitrogenase that only works in the appropriate legume host.
(B) destruction of all incompatible Rhizobium species by enzymes secreted from the legume's roots.
(C) each legume being found where the soil has only the Rhizobium specific to that legume.
(D) each legume having a specific set of early nodulin genes.
(E) specific recognition between the chemical signals and signal receptors of the Rhizobium and legume species.
37. Germinated pollen grain is to___________ as___________is to female gametophyte.
(A) male gametophyte; embryo sac
(B) embryo sac; ovule
(C) petal; sepal
(D) anther; seed
(E) ovule; sporophyte
38. A plant that is self-incompatible has a genotype of S5S9 for the S-locus. It receives pollen from a plant that is S3S9. Which of the following is most likely to occur?
(A) About half of the pollen will germinate.
(B) Fertilization will occur in about half of the flowers of the pollinated plant.
(C) None of the pollen will germinate.
(D) Pollen from the S3S9 plant will secrete ribonuclease that destroys epidermal cells of the $559 stigma.
(E) All of the pollen will germinate, forming pollen tubes.
39. "Golden Rice" is a transgenic variety that
(A) contains daffodil genes that increase the vitamin A content of the rice.
(B) is resistant to a virus that commonly attacks rice fields.
(C) is resistant to various herbicides and thus rice fields can be weeded with those herbicides.
(D) includes bacterial genes that produce a toxin that reduces damage from insect pests.
(E) produces much larger, golden grains that increase crop yields.
40. Which of the following is not a typical component of a signal-transduction pathway such as the one involved in producing the greening response?
(A) activation of enzymes that produce second messengers such as cGMP
(B) G-proteins acting as transcription factors that activate specific genes
(C) activation of a G-protein by an activated receptor protein
(D) phosphorylation of transcription factors
(E) protein kinase cascades
41. Buds and sprouts often form on tree stumps. Which of the following hormones would you expect to stimulate their formation?
(A) cytokinins
(B) auxin
(C) abscisic acid
(D) gibberellins
(E) ethylene
42. Which of the following is not part of the acid-growth hypothesis?
(A) The wall fabric becomes looser (more plastic).
(B) Auxin stimulates proton pumps in cell membranes.
(C) The turgor pressure of the cell exceeds the restraining pressure of the loosened cell wall, and the cell takes up water and elongates.
(D) Lowered pH results in the breakage of cross-links between cellulose microfibrils.
(E) Auxin-activated proton pumps stimulate cell division in meristems.
43. Which of the following statements about bioenergetics is true?
(A) A BMR can be determined only at a specific temperature.
(B) Endotherms are warmed by metabolic heat.
(C) Ectotherms and endotherms use the same basic energy "strategy."
(D) Every animal has a specific metabolic rate that does not change.
(E) An SMR is best measured just after an ectotherm has eaten.
44. Which of the following vertebrate organ systems does not open directly to the external environment?
(A) circulatory system
(B) excretory system
(C) respiratory system
(D) digestive system
(E) reproductive system
45. Which of the following physiological responses is an example of positive feedback?
(A) Stimulation of a nerve cell causes sodium ions to leak into the cell, and the sodium influx triggers the inward leaking of even more sodium.
(B) The pituitary gland secretes a hormone called TSH, which stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete another hormone called thyroxine; a high concentration of thyroxine suppresses the pituitary's secretion of TSH.
(C) The body's production of red blood cells, which transport oxygen from the lungs to other organs, is stimulated by a low concentration of oxygen.
(D) A high concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood causes deeper, more rapid breathing, which expels carbon dioxide.
(E) An increase in the concentration of glucose in the blood stimulates the pancreas to secrete insulin, a hormone that lowers blood glucose concentration.
46. The mammalian trachea and esophagus both open into the
(A) stomach.
(B) pharynx.
(C) epiglottis.
(D) rectum.
(E) large intestine.
47. Individuals whose diet consists primarily of corn would likely become
(A) malnourished.
(B) overnourished.
(C) undernourished.
(D) anorexic.
(E) obese.
48. If you were to jog a mile a few hours after lunch, which stored fuel would you probably tap?
(A) muscle proteins
(B) fats stored in adipose tissue
(C) muscle and liver glycogen
(D) blood proteins
(E) fat stored in the liver
49. Blood returning to the mammalian heart in a pulmonary vein will drain first into the
(A) right ventricle.
(B) vena cava.
(C) left atrium.
(D) right atrium.
(E) left ventricle.
50. In negative-pressure breathing, inhalation results from
(A) using muscles of the lungs to expand the alveoli.
(B) relaxing the muscles of the rib cage.
(C) contracting the diaphragm.
(D) contracting the abdominal muscles.
(E) forcing air from the throat down into the lungs.
51. Which of the following reactions prevails in red blood cells traveling through pulmonary capillaries? (Hb = hemoglobin)
(A) CO2 + H2O → H2CO3
(B) Hb(O2)4→ Hb + 4O2
(C) Hb + 4 CO2 → Hb(CO2)4
(D) H2CO3→H1 + HCO3-
(E) Hb + 4 O2→ Hb(O2)4
52. Which of the following molecules is incorrectly paired with a source?
(A) interferons_virus-infected cells
(B) interleukin-1-macrophages
(C) perforins cytotoxic T cells
(D) lysozyme tears
(E) immunoglobulins-helper T cells
53. Which of the following is a characteristic of the early stages of local inflammation?
(A) precapillary arteriole constriction
(B) attack by cytotoxic T cells
(C) fever
(D) antibody-complement - mediated lysis of microbes
(E) release of histamine
54. An epitope associates with which part of an antibody?
(A) the antibody tail
(B) the antibody-binding site
(C) the variable regions of a heavy chain and light chain combined
(D) the light-chain constant regions only
(E) the heavy-chain constant regions only
55. Which of the following is not true about helper T cells?
(A) They function in both cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.
(B) They recognize polysaccharide fragments presented by class II MHC molecules.
(C) They bear surface CD4 molecules.
(D) When activated, they secrete IL-2 and other cytokines.
56. The majority of water and salt filtered into Bownan's capsule is reabsorbed by
(A)diffusion from the descending linnb of the loop of I lenle into the hyperosmotic interstitial fluid of the medulla.
(B) active transport across the transport epithelium of the thick upper segment of the ascending linb of the loop of Henle.
(C)selective secretion and diffusion across the distal tubule.
(D) diffusion from the collecting duct into the increasing osmolic gradient of the renal medulla.
(E) the transport epithelia of the proximal tububule.
57. Select the pair in which the witrogenous waste is incorrectly matched with the benelit of its excretion.
(A) uric acid -mininal loss of water when excreted
(B) uren-_very insoluble in water
(C)uric acid_can be stored as as a precipitate
(D)ammonia_very soluble in water
(E) urea_low toxicity relative to ammonia
58. Which of the following correctly describes a case of osmoregulation?
(A) secretion of drugs and reabsorption of nutrients by the proximal tubule
(B) discharge of excess water in a hypoosmotic environment
(C)excretion of salt in a hypoosmotic environment
(D)expenditure of energy to convert ammonia to less toxic wastes
(E) body fluids that are isoosmotic with the external environment
59. A distinctive feature of the mechanism of action of thyroid hormones and stercid hormones is that
(A)targei cells react more rapidly these hormormones than to locallatorslin
(B) these hormones affect metabolism.
(C) these hormones are regulated by feedback loops.
(D)these hormones bind to receptors inside cells.
(E) these hormones bind with specific receptor proteins on target-cell plasma menibranes.
60. Which of the following hormones is incorrectly paired with its action?
(A)melatonin_affects biological rhythms, seasonal reproduction
(B)oxytocin -stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth
(C) thyroxine_stimulates metabolic processesses
(D)insulin_stimulalates glycogen breakdown in the liver
(E) ACTH-stimulates the rejease of glucocorticnids by the adrenal corlerrir
61. The main target organs for tropic hormones are
(A)blood vessels.
(B) endocrine glands.
(C) muscles.
(D) nerves.
(E) kidneys.
62. Which of the following characterizes parthenogenesis?
(A) An egg develops without being fertilized.
(B) An individual may change its sex during its lifetime.
(C)Specialized groups of cells be relessed and grow into sew individualssia
(D) An organism is first a male and then a female.
(E) Both members of a mating pair have male and female reproductive organs.
63. Which of the following male and fenale structures are loest allone line
(A) Leydig cells of testes...follicells of ovaries
(B) testes_ovaries
(C)seminiferous tubules_vagina
(D)spermatogonia_oogonia
(E) vas deferens-oviduct
64. Fertilization of human eggs most often takes place in the
(A) vas deferens.
(B) ovary.
(C) vagina.
(D) oviduct (fallopian tube).
(E) uterus.
65. Which of the following is common to both avian and mammalian development?
(A) gray crescent
(B) epiblast and hypoblast
(C) holoblastic cleavage
(D) trophoblast
(E) yolk plug
66. In a frog embryo, the blastocoel is
(A) the cavity that becomes the coelom.
(B) lined with endoderm during gastrulation.
(C)completely obliterated by yolk platelets.
(D) located primarily in the animal hemisphere.
(E) the cavity that later forms the archenteron.
67. In the early development of an amphibian embryo, an important "organizer" is the
(A)dorsal lip of the blastopore.
(B) notochord.
(C) neural tube.
(D) dorsal ectoderm.
(E) archenteron roof.
68. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are located on the
(A) tips of axons.
(B) axon membranes in the regions of the nodes of Ranvier.
(C) membranes of synaplic vesicles.
(D) presynaptic membrane.
(E) postsynaptic membrane.
69. Of the following components of the nervous system, which is the most inclusiusive?
(A)central nervous system
(B) neuron
(C)brain
(D)spinal cord
(E) gray matter
70. Action potentials are usually propagated in only one direction along an axon because
(A)ions can flow along the axon only in one direction.
(B) the brief refractory period prevents opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels.
(C)the nodes of Ranvier conduct only in one direction.
(D) the axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than the tips of the axon.
(E) both sodium and potassium vollage-gated channels open in one direction.
71. Some sharks close their eyes just before they bite. Although they cannot see their prey, their bites are on target. Researchers have noted that sharks often misdirect their bites at metal objects, and they can find batteries buried under the sand of an aquarium. This evidence suggests that sharks keep track of their prey during the split second before they bite in the same way that
(A) a male silkworm moth locates a mate.
(B) a platypus locates its prey in a muddy river.
(C) a bat can find moths in the dark.
(D) a Natworm avoids light places.
(E) a rattlesnake finds a mouse in its burrow.
72. The transduction of sound waves to action potentials takes place
(A) as the basilar membrane becomes more permeable to sodium ions and depolarizes, initiating an action potential in a sensory neuron.
(B) when hair cells are bent against the tectorial membrane, causing them to depolarize and release neurotransmitter molecules that stimulate sensory neurons.
(C) within the middle ear as the vibrations are amplified by the malleus, incus, and stapes.
(D) within the tectorial membrane as it is stimulated by the hair cells.
(E) as the basilar membrane vibrates at different frequencies in response to the varying volume of sounds.
73. Clams and lobsters both have exoskeletons, but lobsters have much greater mobility. Why?
(A) The lobster skeleton can actively contract, while the clam skeleton lacks its own contractile mechanism.
(B) Clams only have adductor muscles that hold the shell closed, whereas lobsters have both abductor and adductor muscles.
(C) Clams can only grow by adding to the outer edge of the shell, whereas lobsters molt and repeatedly replace their exoskeleton with a larger, more flexible one.
(D) Lobsters have a jointed exoskeleton, allowing for the flexible movement of appendages and body parts at the joints.
(E) The paramyosin of clam muscles holds them in a low-energy state of contraction, whereas lobster muscles are very similar to vertebrate striated muscles.
74. Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?
(A) savanna cool temperature, precipitation uniform during the year
(B) temperate deciduous forest-relatively short growing season, imild winters
(C) tropical forests nearly constant photoperiod and temperature
(D) temperate grasslands relatively warm winters, most rainfall in summer
(E) tundra-long summers, mild winters
75. Which of the following do all terrestrial biomes have in common?
(A) clear boundaries between adjacent biomes
(B) annual average rainfall in excess of 25 cm
(C) cold winter months
(D) a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns
(E) vegetation demonstrating vertical stratification
76. The nature-versus-nurture controversy centers on
(A) the distinction between proximate and ultimate causes of behavior.
(B) the role of genes in learning.
(C) whether animals have conscious feelings or thoughts.
(D) the importance of good parental care.
(E) the extent to which an animal's behavior is innate or learned.
77. According to the inequality known as Hamilton's rule (rB ＞ C),
(A) natural selection is more likely to favor altruistic acts when the beneficiary is an offspring than when it is a sibling.
(B) natural selection would favor altruistic acts when the benefit to the receiver, reduced by the coefficient of relatedness, exceeds the cost to the altruist.
(C) natural selection could not favor altruism if the altruist loses its life.
(D) kin selection is a stronger selection factor than the individual reproductive success favored by natural selection.
(E) altruism must always be reciprocal.
78. Which of the following is lensi likely to involve cognition?
(A) being aware of your neighbor's lawn care
(B) positive rheotaxis of a fish in a current
(C) optimal foraging
(D) territoriality
(E) navigation of a sparrow during seasonal migration
79. A uniform dispersion pattern for a population may indicate that
(A) the population is spreading out and increasing its range.
(B) resources are heterogeneously distributed.
(C) the density of the population is low.
(D) individuals of the population are competing for some resource, such as water and minerals for plants or nesting sites for animals.
(E) there is an absence of strong attractions or repulsions among individuals.
80. Which life history strategy would be favored by natural selection if survival of offspring is quite low and unpredictable?
(A) big-bang reproduction, or semelparity
(B) repeated reproduction, or iteroparity
(C) very early age of first reproduction
(D) production of a large number of large eggs and a great deal of parental care
(E) relatively late age of first reproduction
81. All these descriptions are characteristic of human populations in industrialized countries except
(A) relatively small family size.
(B) Type I survivorship curve.
(C) r-selected life history.
(D) several potential reproductions per lifetime.
(E) relatively even age structure.
82. According to the concept of competitive exclusion,
(A) two species cannot coexist in the same habitat.
(B) competition within a population results in the success of the best-adapted individuals.
(C) two species cannot share the exact same niche in a community.
(D) extinction or emigration are the only possible results of competitive interactions.
(E) resource partitioning will allow a species to utilize all the resources of its niche.
83. An example of cryptic coloration is the
(A) green color of a plant.
(B) mottled coloring of moths that rest on lichens.
(C) bright colors of an insect-pollinated flower.
(D) bright markings of a poisonous tropical frog.
(E) stripes of a skunk.
84. According to the hypothesis of island biogeography, species richness would be greatest on an island that is
(A) large and remote.
(B) small and close to a mainland.
(C) environmentally homogeneous.
(D) small and remote.
(E) large and close to a mainland.
85. Which of the following organisms is incorrectly paired with its trophic level?
(A) cyanobacteria-primary producer
(B) eagle tertiary consumer
(C) fungi detritivore
(D) zooplankton secondary consumer
(E) grasshopper-primary consumer
86. The recent increase in atmospheric CO2 concentration is mainly a result of an increase in
(A) the burning of fossil fuels and wood.
(B) cellular respiration by the exploding human population.
(C) the biosphere's biomass.
(D) the absorption of infrared radiation escaping from Earth.
(E) primary production.
87. Quantities of mineral nutrients in soils of tropical rain forests are relatively low because
(A) the decomposition of organic refuse and reassimilation of chemicals by plants occur rapidly.
(B) nutrient cycles occur at a relatively slow rate in tropical soils.
(C) the standing crop is small.
(D) microorganisms that recycle chemicals are not very abundant in tropical soils.
(E) the high temperatures destroy the nutrients.
88. The application of ecological principles to return a degraded ecosystem to its natural state is specifically characteristic of
(A) landscape ecology.
(B) restoration ecology.
(C) resource conservation.
(D) conservation ecology.
(E) population viability analysis.
89. Which of the following statements about the declining-population approach to conservation is not correct?
(A) IHumans may not be the cause of every population decline.
(B) We need information on whether or not the population in question is in decline.
(C) We need to do something quickly, even if we have no information, because conservation biology is a crisis discipline.
(D) A proposed reason for the decline should be tested experimentally.
(E) Several hypotheses about why the population is declining should be evaluated.
90. Which of the following statements about protected areas is not correct?
(A) National parks are only one type of protected area.
(B) Biodiversity hot spots are important areas to protect.
(C) We now protect 25% of the land areas of the planet.
(D) Protected area management must be coordinated with management of lands outside the protected zone.
(E) Most protected areas are small in size.

申論題 (1)

1. 試論述影響島嶼生物多樣性的因素。